[EM] Why the concept of "sincere" votes in Range is flawed.
Abd ul-Rahman Lomax
abd at lomaxdesign.com
Sun Dec 7 19:29:19 PST 2008
At 01:38 PM 12/5/2008, Kristofer Munsterhjelm wrote:
>Abd ul-Rahman Lomax wrote:
>>
>>Ballots do not ask for the voter's sincere opinion. They ask voters
>>to make a choice or choices.
>
>I think that is incorrect. Ranked methods ask for the sincere opinion of
>the voter, and that opinion can be well defined.
Hmmm.... A ballot is a piece of paper with words on it. It can "ask
for" a "sincere opinion," using words that express such a request.
Turns out that the RCV ballots I looked at don't do that. They
instruct the voters to mark choices, which is totally free on any
request that these marks be "sincere." Some ballot designs may indeed
request a preference order. Now, what if the voter equally prefers
two candidates? If the voter is not allowed to so indicate, is the
ballot asking the voter to lie? Or what?
Basically, what Kristofer is doing is confusing the thinking of a
voting system designer for what the voter is requested to do on the
ballot. The designer may have in mind that voters will mark in order
of preference. It's absolutely true that it's generally easier to
determine preference than to determine preference strength, but if
equal ranking isn't allowed, then a sincere vote may be impossible,
i.e., the ranked method forces the voter to show a preference that
does not exist. Preference order was an obvious and simple way of
voting, and it's got a long and venerable history, but it was by no
means a logically rigorous procedure. A great deal of work was done
studying how preference order would translate to social order, but it
was, unfortunately, mostly isolated from a real-world understanding
of normal human decision-making. We don't use preference order in
isolation from preference strength; a small or infinitesimal
preference is not the same as a strong one, and has very different
implications.
> The first preference is
>the opinion of "who would you pick, were you the dictator".
Hmmm.... if I were the dictator, and I wanted the world to be safe
for my children, I'd want to know what everyone else wanted, in as
much detail as possible. Dictators who only follow their own whims
sometimes live out their lives, but after them, chaos. Their families
tend not to survive.
So ... this dictator would vote strategically, as many have defined
it. That's an oxymoron, isn't it? The reductio ad absurdem of
"sincere voting?"?
I'd put it differently: which candidate would you pick, if you knew
that it was a total tie as far as everyone else thought, or,
alternatively, you don't know and can't know what their preferences
are, to any degree of confidence except none, in advance of the canvass.
> The second is "who would you pick if the first choice was not
> available", and so on down.
How many write-in votes do I get?
> Because of Arrow, we know that ranked methods are going to be
> vulnerable to strategy (optimization). However, that's a flaw with
> ranked voting methods. Knowing that they are vulnerable to
> optimization does not make an optimized vote sincere.
Nobody has claimed that they are, in the ordinary sense, but neither
are they necessarily insincere, because they are not sentiments, they
are, generally, *votes*. As actions intended to cause an effect that
is desired, they can be seen as sincere in a way.
Optimized votes in ranked methods necessarily reverse preference,
which, if we do expect preference order expression, we can term
"insincere," but it is a term of art and should be separated from the
moral implications of "sincerity."
For example, there is an election in which IRV is being used. There
are three candidates, and you expect that your favorite will, if you
and your friends vote for A, your favorite, because your first
preference vote for A will edge B out to elimination, leaving A and C
to face each other, and you fear, and reasonably, that C will win in
this case. B is the compromise candidate, the Condorcet winner, and
the preferences are significant; but is also the sincere Range
winner, by a good measure. This is absolutely not a rare scenario,
except in two-party partisan elections which, conveniently, are most
IRV elections outside the U.S.
Since B is a much better winner to you than C, you and your friends
decide to vote for B. Is that a sincere vote? In IRV, it involves
voting B>A>C. On the face, it's insincere, but the motivation is to
improve the election outcome, not only for yourself and your party,
*but for most voters.*
Under some circumstances, this could be considered a moral necessity!
>Now, you may say that only order reversal is insincere. This sounds
>a bit like a ranked vote advocate saying that only altering your
>first preference is insincere, and therefore, ranked methods that
>pass FBC are strategyproof because altering your subsequent
>preferences is mere optimization.
Huh? *This* sounds a tad like a ... non sequitur?
Only order reversal is clearly insincere, because it clearly
expresses the opposite of the true preference. Voting equally does
not state a preference, it's actually a kind of abstention, "I'd
rather not say which of these I prefer." Is that statement insincere?
It indicates, in any voting system I'm aware of, that the suppressed
preference is not maximal, it makes no sense if such a preference is
not disclosed. I'd only conceal a maximal preference if I preferred
one of the other candidates over another of them, and that
contradicts the assumption that the preference concealed is maximal.
(Ranked voting theorists are accustomed to thinking of preferences as
absolute things, with no concept of preference strengths being
additive with a limit to the sum. But if A is the absolute best, and
C is the absolute worst, B is in the middle, and something increases
our preference for A over C, it must decrease our preference for A
over B. In voting terms, we only have one vote, and if we pretend
that A over B is all or nothing, we might be called on it, we are
claiming that we are indifferent to B over C. Nader re Gore and Bush.
Tweedledum and Tweedledee. If anyone believed him. I'm not sure he
believed himself, but maybe ....)
Kristofer, are you aware that what I'm claiming here was published
with a straight face in peer-reviewed journals, years ago, that
Approval was "strategy-free" and that one of the complaints of
critics of Approval was that there was more than one possible sincere vote?
Some seem to think that I'm trying reduce the whole concept of
"sincere vote" to nothing. But of all possible sincere votes in
Approval, most of them are not sincere, that is, they reverse
preference. Only certain votes that do not violate preference order
can be considered sincere.
This is an entirely different issue from whether or not the votes are
"strategic." But with Approval, all votes could be considered
"strategic," depending on how the voter arrived at the vote! If the
voter considered who might win the election, and not simply absolute
utilities, we might consider it strategy free. Except we still have
the problem of how the voter sets the approval cutoff. There isn't
any absolute! The voter would still need to use some strategy, I'd
think. If the method requires a majority, in fact, the voter, zero
knowledge, can simply vote for the favorite. That's a "strategic
vote." But with other methods, *the same vote*, with similar effect,
would clearly be considered sincere.
(Seriously, we see critics of Approval claiming that a vote is
insincere where the voter bullet votes, because, allegedly, the voter
"also approves" of another. A voter supposedly, "also approves of B,"
but votes only for A, and this causes A to win, whereas the other
voters "sincerely approved both A and B," even though they actually
preferred B to A. Thus the selfish "insincere" voter gets his
preference, whereas the "honest" other voters lose out. Look, it's a
total mess, replete with contrary assumptions. The voter voted for A
because the voter preferred A, with enough preference strength that
it mattered. The other voters decided that it didn't matter enough to
them to not vote for B also. What's the problem? All the voters we've
mentioned accepted A, A has to be, from the votes, a reasonable
winner. But, wait! The B voters voted for A also because they feared
that C would win. Aha! They voted *strategically*, whereas A was the
sincere one. Oops! Which is it? It's neither, these are votes, not
sentiments, and all the voters presumably voting to maximize the
outcome as they saw it. They all voted strategically, except perhaps
with differing degrees of correct knowledge.)
Approval, like other Range methods, simulates to a degree
deliberative process, where we reveal what we would "also accept."
Range does it most accurately. In all deliberative process, in normal
society, people vary in how much they will disclose of what they will
"also accept." Some people are very stubborn, others are more willing
to compromise. It takes all kinds. Range allows accuracy of
disclosure, that is the difference between Range and Approval.
>Election methods in general are thus algorithms that take individual
>opinions as input and returns a good common choice, or a social
>ordering. What is a good common choice may be defined by criteria (e.g
>Condorcet) or by utility.
This opposes criteria and utility, implying that utility isn't a
criterion. It is. It was an error to not use utility in the first
place, an oversight. I've seen a little of the rationale, because it
wasn't like the idea didn't occur. Utility was not used because there
was no way, it was thought, to objectively judge utilities or
preference strengths.
This was confused, in fact. There can be ways, and, further, we can
posit utilities and see how voting systems perform under varying
assumptions and mixes of how voters will translate their underlying
utilities to votes. We know the utilities by *assuming them*. And, in
fact, in some situations utilities can be directly predicted;
financial choices, for example. But what is needed isn't just raw
utilities for the choices, it is also probabilities, and that is
where game theory and economic choice theory went, and the political
scientists, largely, got caught in a rabbit-hole of studying
preference alone. Even though preference, in fact, is almost as
difficult to determine. It's a pretty bad assumption to assume that a
trivial, even random preference, the whim of the moment, is the same
as a preference that people would literally die for. Yet that is what
the Condorcet criterion assumes. Preference strength does not matter.
It's preposterous!
Sometimes I feel like the little boy crying out that the emperor has
no clothes! Except that I'm not the first to notice this stuff. I'm
just re-emphasizing it, bringing it up when the old preference myths
come up. It can take a long time for new ways of thinking to
penetrate the common psyche.
(Want to see some fireworks? State what is common knowledge among
most academics: race does not exist except as a social construct, a
myth that only affects people because some believe in it. Watch
people sputter, "But it's obvious! Are you blind?" Gradually, people
are getting it. It's not what some imagine, about being "politically
correct." Just correct.)
>As for Range, either Range, the method, has a well defined input or
>it has not.
It doesn't, as a voting method. The sum of utilities approach,
however, as a way of studying voting methods, which is distinct from
the Range methods, has three prominent inputs:
(1) Absolute utilities.
(2) Normalized absolute utilities.
(3) Normalized absolute utilities modified by probabilities.
Remember that Arrow's theorem is not about voting methods? I wish
political activists would stop claiming it was! It was about a method
of determining a social preference order from a collection of
individual preference orders, and Arrow, of course, showed that
certain commonly assumed desirable traits of amalgamating the
preferences were incompatible, that no amalgamation could satisfy all of them.
But Arrow's theorem was missing something: cardinal ratings as input,
or utilities. He simply did not allow it. The input to the black box
Arrow was studying was preference order, period. Equal rankings not allowed.
I'm recommending that anyone following this discussion who wants to
see some depth read Dillon and Mertens. There may still be a copy of
their paper on rangevoting.org. Otherwise get thee to a library which
keeps Econometrics, Vol. 67, No. 3, (May, 1999), pp. 471-498. Warren
calls their notation, "notation from hell." However, the text is
fairly readable, and here is some of it:
>A Social Welfare Function (SWF) maps profiles of individual
>preferences to a social preference. For preferences over lotteries,
>we axiomatize such a map, "relative utilitarianism" (RU), consisting
>of normalizing the nonconstant individual von Neumann-Morganstern
>(VNM) utility functions to have infimum zero and supremum one, and,
>taking the sum as social utility (Arrow (1963, Ch. III, para 6, p. 32))
>
>Our approach, in the sense of an axiomatic SWF, is very close to
>Arrow's tradition. The main difference seems to be the motivation.
>Given his insistence on the full strength of Independence of
>Irrelevant Alternatives (IIA), his approach seems more oriented
>towards understanding the voting paradox, and getting a general
>social choice paradox. Because voting situations are indeed
>characterized by successive votes between pairs, or at least small
>subsets of alternatives, imposing full strength IIA is almost
>necessary for analysing the consistency between successive votes.
>Our concern is more the normative question of finding a "good" SWF,
>effectively and justifiably useful for public policy
>recommendations. This is the original question of social choice
>theory, as well as the fundamental question of normative economics,
>and goes back implicitly at least two centuries ago, to the early
>utilitarians, and explictly more than a half century ago, to the
>work of Bergaon and Samuelson (Arrow (1963)). The full force of IIA
>is then no longer compelling [as discussed later in the paper] ...
>some aspects of it are suspect, and contradict the most obvious
>intuition of what a good SWF should do. It is precisely those that we avoid.
>
>While his axioms were inconsistent, ours yield a unique solution.
>IIA is substantially weakened, indeed almost dropped, its only
>remnants being the IRA axiom [Independence of Redundant
>Alternatives], the monotonicity axiom (MON), and a continuity axiom.
>The other axioms are trivial cases of his Pareto axiom (or
>nontrivial cases of "Citizens' Sovereignty"), except for the
>classical anonymity axiom (ANON) strengthening his nondictatorship.
>
>This paper clearly relies strongly on the additional mileage, in the
>form of more restricted preferences, obtained in decision theory by
>going to lotteries....
>
>Why not take interpersonally comparable utility functions as
>primitives? The basic argument is Arrow's (1963), that primitives
>should be empirically meaningful ... lest the axioms themselves
>become meaningless, and so the whole theory. See also Rawls (1971,
>e.g., p. 322) for a more recent expression of the mythical character
>of the numbers behind preferences: they are just a construct in the
>"observing mathematician"'s mind, and without any uniqueness
>property in addition. But if until Arrow this ordinalist position
>was almost the consensus, apparently his theorem itself, together
>with the very influential work of Hirsanyi, turned the tide
>partially, and led to the conclusion that interpersonal
>comparability was a must to obtain SWFs. The present theorem proves
>this conclusion false....
>
>... to apply RU meaningfully, one has to, and it suffices to,
>consider a set of alternatives sufficiently encompassing as to
>include, besides the actual alternatives of interest, each person's
>best and worst alternative within the "universal" set A, limited
>only by feasibility and justice. This leads in turn to a concept of
>"absolute utility:" the "correct" scaling of an individual's utility
>is determined solely by his own preferences and by the philosophy of
>the state adopted. This brings us almost back to classical
>utilitarianism, but this time, without any "moral judgement" as
>primitive, and with a complete axiomatization.
>
>For two alternatives, RU amounts to majority rule, so our result can
>be viewed as a generalization of May (1952) that, for this case,
>majority rule is the only "reasonable" solution. And, when viewed as
>a mechanism, RU suggests letting each voter assign to every
>alternative some utility in [0,1], and to choose the alternative
>with the highest sum. Except possiblty with very small sets of
>voters, voters will clearly find that, for their vote to have a
>maximal effect, they should assign either 0 or 1 to every
>alternative. Hence the corresponding direct mechanism seems to be
>"approval voting" (Brams and Fishburn (1978)).
Range Voting was not on the table at the time. All that Range Voting
does is to allow the direct expression of the assigned utilities,
within the limit of [0,1]; Dhillon and Mertens seem to assume that
voters will maximize their vote, if they could express it more
accurately. Our understanding is different: some will maximize, some
will not, the result will be intermediate between full expression and
approval-style voting. The paper deals with the full version, showing
that it is a unique solution to the Arrovian conditions, with the
modification they note. This, quite reasonably, meets a reasonable
definition of "ideal voting system," contradicting the common claim
that there is no such thing.
But what about "sincere votes"? The utilities expressed in the full
version, VNM utilities, preserve preference order entirely. Every
voter preference can be found there, if we assume a nonzero
preference strength and nonzero probability. In common language, an
outcome with zero probability is, indeed, irrelevant! It should not
affect the "votes." Then, these VNM values can be expressed with any
accuracy, and, it happens, the voter gains the maximum personal
utility voting them in binary fashion. More accurately, the extreme
votes in some situations have the same expected utility as the
accurate ones without resolution limit, and in others they have more;
however, that assumes that the voter has chosen accurate
probabilities in deciding where to vote 0 and where to vote 1. It
may, in fact, be safer to estimate an intermediate value, that
conclusion is based on my own relatively primitive work with absolute
expected utilities. My own sense is that voters should vote whatever
they prefer to vote, they should understand the basic principles of
"strategic Range voting." Don't reverse preference is one basic rule,
it never helps you, and it can hurt you, in terms of expected
outcome. And cast a full vote within the reasonable election outcome,
i.e., vote at full or close to full vote for a preferred
"frontrunner," and a minimal or close to minimal vote for the worst
of the frontrunners. "Frontrunner" here includes any candidate the
voter considers a real possibility for winner, or, in a system using
a runoff, for making it into the runoff. Beyond that, the voter is
relatively safe just using common sense. And can decide to violate
the "rules" I just gave, and there can be situations where that
would, indeed, be a better strategy.
And all that "strategy" slightly harms overall results over voting
non-probability adjusted utilities, as long as these votes are
confined to a reasonable election set. If the voter cares about that,
trying to accurately represent preference strengths is, possibly, a
morally superior position, but the difference between that and
strategically optimized votes is small. I suggest voting which ever
way is easier! One should not have to rack one's brain for days to
figure out exactly how to vote! Quite simply, the difference it will
make isn't worth that. What's much more important is to understand
the political situation and the candidates. I.e., what we normally
think of as important: which candidate is best? which is worst? Which
ones have a chance, which ones don't. We are totally accustomed to this!
To continue with Kristofer's response, repeating a little:
>Election methods in general are thus algorithms that take individual
>opinions as input and returns a good common choice, or a social
>ordering. What is a good common choice may be defined by criteria (e.g
>Condorcet) or by utility. If it has, then incentives to misrepresent
>the input is bad, and would count as strategy. If it has not, then
>how can it make sense of the input to find a good output (choice or
>social ordering)?
Ah! I thought so! "Strategy" is "bad."
What's missing from Kristofer's comment is an understanding that
full-on "strategic" voting in Range does not "misrepresent the
input." Yes, full optimization of result needs accurate utilities,
but it still takes place with less information, and yields a result
which cannot deviate far from what would have been found if the voter
had voted with full disclosure. If a voter votes approval style and
so conceals a large preference, i.e., the voter, simply rounding off
the utilities, would have voted differently, the voter is abstaining
from an election seriously important to the voter, the voter may
regret the vote. The one most likely to suffer from an "exaggerated"
vote is the voter, which seems eminently fair to me.
Example: the voter has non-strategic votes (probabilities not
considered) of 1, 0.9, 0, for the set of frontrunners. The voter
wants the favorite to win, of course, who doesn't? So the voter
bullet votes. If the 0 were not a frontrunner, that would be a very
reasonable vote. But if, say, the probability of election of the
worst candidate is 0.5, there is a very good chance that the voter
will regret not adding a vote for the middle candidate in that set.
But it's up to the voter, both votes (1, 0, 0) and (1, 1, 0) are
sincere. The first expresses A>B and A>C, the second expresses A>C
and B>C. All these are true. The second is a bit more expressive of
the underlying utilities.
Game theory would suggest that we vote for each alternative that
exceeds, in utility, our expectation for the election outcome. If we
assume zero knowledge, we could assume that the probability is 1/3
for each candidate. So the expected election outcome is 1/3 plus
0.9/3 plus 0 equals .633. Voting for B would not be a "strategic
vote," but neither is bullet voting. (The most reasonable definition
of "strategic vote" that has been used in our discussion here is a
vote modified by understanding which candidates are reasonably likely
as winners. A zero knowledge vote is not strategic. So there is more
than one non-strategic vote!
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