[EM] Part 2, Aha, now l understand Ossipoff...

[MIKE OSSIPOFF]

Warren said:

Now let us ask, what if we assume exponential not uniform distribution - 
which has
the advantage of being self-similar, and with no high-cutoff necessary,
causing the formula we shall get to be valid everywhere - and ask for y so 
that
  integral(from A to y)  (1-A/x)*exp(-K*x)  dx  =    integral(from y to B)  
(B/x-1)*exp(-K*x) dx  ?
then we get a nasty transcendental
equation involving "exponential integrals" (higher transcendental fns)
to solve numerically.

I reply:

Tha's why I wouldn't use an exponential. I'd use B/(x+A). It would do.

Warren continues:

I had derived this equation in an earlier email to Ossipoff some days ago.


I reply:

Warren sent me pages and pages of gibberish. I confess that I didn't read 
it. His writing doesn't inspire much confidence.

Mike Ossipoff

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