[EM] Part 2, Aha, now l understand Ossipoff...
MIKE OSSIPOFF
nkklrp at hotmail.com
Wed Jan 17 08:16:03 PST 2007
Warren said:
Now let us ask, what if we assume exponential not uniform distribution -
which has
the advantage of being self-similar, and with no high-cutoff necessary,
causing the formula we shall get to be valid everywhere - and ask for y so
that
integral(from A to y) (1-A/x)*exp(-K*x) dx = integral(from y to B)
(B/x-1)*exp(-K*x) dx ?
then we get a nasty transcendental
equation involving "exponential integrals" (higher transcendental fns)
to solve numerically.
I reply:
Tha's why I wouldn't use an exponential. I'd use B/(x+A). It would do.
Warren continues:
I had derived this equation in an earlier email to Ossipoff some days ago.
I reply:
Warren sent me pages and pages of gibberish. I confess that I didn't read
it. His writing doesn't inspire much confidence.
Mike Ossipoff
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