[EM] Some answers to "1-person-1-vote"

[Scott Ritchie]

On Thu, 2005-11-10 at 20:57 -0500, Abd ul-Rahman Lomax wrote:
> The flaw in what Mr. Ritchie wrote was the assumption that, in 
> cumulative voting, every voter gets the same number of votes. With 
> that assumption, *of course* cumulative voting does not violate the 
> 1p1v principle. But cumulative voting does not necessarily have that 
> restriction, as with share corporation elections.

I don't disagree with you here - *of course* it's true.  However, I have
heard it argued otherwise by what I thought were smart people, and if
I'm not mistaken it's even come up in court before.

Thanks,
Scott Ritchie