[EM] Some answers to "1-person-1-vote"

[Abd ul-Rahman Lomax]

At 11:27 AM 11/10/2005, Scott Ritchie wrote:
>Calling cumulative voting a violation of one person one vote is quite
>misleading.  Everyone gets the same number of points in a cumulative
>voting election - just because these points are sometimes called
>"votes" (as also happens in a borda count) doesn't mean they actually
>are.

*If* everyone gets the same number of points, yes. Merely calling the 
points votes does not change anything. *However*, my understanding is 
that in cumulative voting in share corporations, every shareholder 
gets as many votes as they own shares. Thus, as I wrote, this is "one 
share, one vote," not "one person, one vote."

One Person One Vote means, essentially, that everyone has the same 
share of voting power. That votes are divided fractionally (as they 
would be, for example, in FAAV, Fractional Approval Asset Voting), or 
are a fixed number of points, is not relevant.

The flaw in what Mr. Ritchie wrote was the assumption that, in 
cumulative voting, every voter gets the same number of votes. With 
that assumption, *of course* cumulative voting does not violate the 
1p1v principle. But cumulative voting does not necessarily have that 
restriction, as with share corporation elections.

Indeed, neither would proxy voting, if we consider the proxies as "voters."

Note that in FAAV, their original voters get one vote total; they may 
cast more than one "vote" on the ballot, but it is then normalized so 
that the total vote per ballot is one. In the revoting that is the 
distribution of "assets," the new voters -- the "candidates" in the 
original election -- cast as many votes as they received. That asset 
election is, again, not one person, one vote, unless by "person" we 
mean the original voters.