# CR == Approval? Re: [EM] Re: Election-methods digest, Vol 1 #517 - 3 msgs

Fri Feb 27 01:04:02 PST 2004

```I wrote and Ernest Prabhakar responded:

>>>(I) 40% chance:
>>>A: 101,000
>>>B: 102,000
>>>C: 104,000
>>>
>>>(II) 60% chance:
>>>A: 100,000
>>>B: 104,000
>>>C: 105,000
>>
>>Then the optimal strategy is to give B 5 points if the preference gap
>>between C and B is at least twice as big as the preference gap between A
>>and B, and one point if it is not.
>
>Sure, for an individual voter.  But let me pose a question for you.
>Say I was the party chieftain for the X party, and my 1,000 loyal
>followers (who all prefer A > B > C) ask me how they should vote.
>Given the above expected breakdown from other voters, would it not make
>sense for me to ask all my followers to vote 5:3:1? (or something similar,
>I haven't done the calculation)

I would say yes, it would make sense for your 1000 vote block to cote that
way.  By upping your effective voting power by a factor of 1000, you've
once again made it so that the act of voting changes your expected utility.

So, I think we have a pretty solid handle on the nature of the differences
between optimal CR and approval strategy.  I'm comfortable with the
statement, "CR is strategically equivalent to Approval, for an individual
voter in a large election".  Can you sum it up in a more clever or succinct
way than that?