[EM] Antisocial behavior
nkklrp at hotmail.com
Thu May 18 17:38:17 PDT 2000
>My 28 Feb 2000 mail was a reply to your 23 Feb 2000 mail and
>your 26 Feb 2000 mail in which you wrote complete nonsense
>about the different methods.
Maybe that exemplifies the kind of hostility that was being
>For example, you wrote (23 Feb 2000):
> > The so-called "Tideman bad example" (which Mike Ossipoff had
> > posted) showed Tideman defeating an alternative which lost only
> > one pairing, and that pairing was 1 to 0, and that outcome
> > looked dubious. Schulze would have elected that alternative.
> > But Tideman elected the alternative which won that 1 to 0
> > pairing. How can we claim that the Schulze winner (Tideman
> > loser) is preferable when not even one voter considers it
> > preferable?
>Even until today, you couldn't present an example where the
>Schulze method elects a candidate even though no voter prefers
>this candidate to the Tideman winner which beats this candidate
>pairwise. You posted an example on 13 May 2000. But this example
I think it's accepted by everyone that the example is or might
be impossible, isn't it?
>By the way, it is clear that your claim is complete nonsense.
>If there is no voter who strictly prefers candidate A to
>candidate B and at leat one voter who strictly prefers
>candidate B to candidate A, then candidate A cannot defeat
>candidate B via beat paths. Therefore candidate A is
>eliminated either in a decisive step of the Schulze method
>or in a random step of the Schulze method where a voter
>is chosen randomly.
Is that situation impossible because it isn't possible to supply
a set of rankings for it? Of course, aside from that, of itself,
it the fact that no one ranks A over B doesn't meant that A can't
have a strong beatpath to B. And the fact that someone ranks B over
A doesn't mean that B has a strong beatpath to A. But maybe it's
that that situation can't be created by a set of rankings. I don't
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