[EM] RV comments
Abd ul-Rahman Lomax
abd at lomaxdesign.com
Mon Jul 23 07:51:44 PDT 2007
At 01:49 AM 7/21/2007, Michael Ossipoff wrote:
>Lomax continues:
>
>Election criteria, generally, are pass-fail
>measures. A method either satisfies the Condorcet Criterion or it
>does not, at least if the Criterion is sufficiently well-defined.
>
>I reply:
>
>Just what we need--an arrogant newcomer to tell us what a criterion is.
Ah, the Ossipoff we have known so well for so
long! He's been relatively well-behaved lately,
but challenge him deeply and the covers come off.
I'm not "telling" Ossipoff what a criterion is. I
write for a general audience, not for him. If I
want to address him, I do so directly. I'm making
a specific point, and what I wrote about criteria
is an important foundation for that point.
>Lomax continues:
>
>But SU, properly considered, can *measure* the *relative* success of
>election methods.
>
>I reply:
>
>Of course, if thats what you value and want to
>measure. That your measure of method-merit is a
>matter of degree instead of yes/no doesnt make
>it better, as you seem to want to imply.
It makes it more informative. And I see no other
competitor. Election "criteria" are a problematic
method of comparing election methods, for there
is no particular basis for choosing which ones matter.
Measuring election success by election criteria
is something that has been attempted for a long
time, and what experts have come to is a basic
conclusion that you can't satisfy all of them.
So, then what criteria are important and what ones do we allow to fail?
>Lomax says:
>
>The Approval measure maximizes
>"approval" of the candidate. While I haven't see this from Approval
>advocates, I would define this as the voter would rather elect the
>candidate than see the office go vacant.
>
>I reply;
>
>I have to admit that Lomax has a creative,
>original, new, and unrecognizable definition :^)
Ossipoff is utterly ignorant of deliberative
process, he has shown this in the past. He knows
a great deal about election methods, which are a
detail in deliberative process, a shortcut used
when full deliberation is considered impractical.
The shortcut is a serious compromise, generally,
and introduces all kinds of complications such as
Condorcet cycles, Favorite Betrayal, and on and
on. What seems to be new to Ossipoff is the
concept that something is off or missing when we
elect a candidate that a majority of the
electorate would reject if asked the question,
"Shall So-and-So be elected to the office?" And
nearly every election method (Range included)
could do this if there is no ratification process.
Now, if it were impossible to have a ratification
process, all this would be moot. But it is not
impossible. Ossipoff knows enough about delegable
proxy to know that it could convert elections
into deliberative process. I assume he also knows
about another invention of Warren Smith, Asset
Voting, which is a form of delegable proxy;
indeed, it is pretty much what I described years
ago as delegable proxy with a secret ballot front
end. But this is beyond my intended scope, which
is here about strategy in Range Voting. All this
came up because Ossipoff has been using the term
"Approved" in a way which implies that it's an
absolute, as if you can simply determine that the
number of voters who have "approved" of a
candidate has been maximized, when, in fact, all
you have maximized is the number of voters who
have *voted* for the candidate. And the difference is important.
Because Approval of a candidate, as commonly used
by those describing Approval Voting, is precisely
equivalent to a Vote for the candidate, it is far
simpler and less obfuscating to simply term it
that, instead of bringing in the cachet of the
word Approval, which certainly sounds stronger
than simply having Voted for a candidate. I'll
vote for a candidate as the lesser of two evils,
but am I therefore "approving" of him?
> Refusal to give someone an approval vote says
> I dont want that candidate in office.
Yes. That's correct. But the reverse doesn't mean
that "I want that candidate in office." Rather,
it means, "I prefer that candidate to those I did not vote for."
> The voter isnt asked to choose between other
> alternatives such as no one in office.
That's right. And this is the shortcoming of
election methods. You would ordinarily not do
this in small-scale democracy. But Ossipoff is
typical of a class of election-methods students
who are interested in the complex high-level
abstractions of election methods and their more
abstruse aspects, more than the nitty-gritty of
democratic decision-making; and it's clear from
prior experience with Ossipoff that he has no
experience in the latter. His idea of democracy
seems to be putting up polls on his own
initiative, without first vetting the
*questions*, a basic principle of democracy. He'd
never get away with this in an organization that
was actually functioning with democratic process.
> If you approve Smith and not Jones, then
> youre obviously saying, I dont want Jones in
> office, but I accept Smiths offer to govern.
In a sense. But that does not necessarily involve
"approval." To use the word outside its ordinary
meaning is deceptive in effect. I think we
started to use the term Approval to distinguish
the action from Vote for, because the latter had
some lingering impression that it was exclusive,
whereas Approval carries an implication that more
than one is possible. But the fact is that it is
possible to vote for more than one candidate, and
generally has been, except where specific rules forbid it.
We too commonly forget that choosing candidates
for election to office is not the only use of
election methods; they are generally of use for
any multiple choice. But we have wisely avoided
using public elections for complex,
multiple-choice questions, because we know too
well that the various election phenomena would
bite us badly. Rather, we reserve these
questions, generally, for representative bodies
where the scale has been reduced (sometimes only
barely) to one which makes deliberative process practical.
However, an exception has asserted itself,
because there was no way to prevent it. If two
conflicting referenda present themselves at the
same election (or more than two), election rules
generally provide that, if both pass, the one with the most Yes votes prevails.
This is Approval Voting, so the claim that
Approval is not used in public elections, so
commonly made even by supporters of Approval Voting, is false.
And in this case it is clear that if no
referendum gets a majority "approval" -- the term
is totally appropriate here -- no referendum is passed.
Approval Voting, as it has been proposed, is like
a series of referenda of the form, "Candidate X
shall be elected to the office." But the
difference is that it is not required, except in
some places, that each of these referenda receive
a majority Yes vote; for that reason, we cannot
equate a vote for a candidate with "approval."
Rather it merely means, "If we must elect someone
from this particular candidate set, and given
that I expect my write-in vote will be moot, then
I choose this one, or this set of candidates."
> Smith instead of Jones, if its necessary to
> say it more explicitly. One could turn in a
> ballot with no approvals, saying that none of
> the candidates are acceptable, implying that
> there should be another election with better candidates.
Yes, one could. However, with most election rules
the effect would be the same as not voting at
all. That is, it has no effect in the direction
Ossipoff implies would be the intention of the
voter, so it is problematic to claim that it means that.
There is an election between three candidates,
and I prefer A>B>C. All three candidates are, in
my understanding, dangerous lunatics, but the
electorate, in my opinion, has been duped. I have
what I believe to be solid knowledge that if A is
elected, Doomsday will come in 200 days, if B is
elected, it will come in 100 days, and if C is
elected, it will come as soon as he's handed the
football. (This explains, perhaps, my utilities
as described in the example we have been working on.)
If I vote Approval style for A and B, or vote, in
Range 2, 2 for A, 1 for B, and 0 for C, does this
mean that I "approve" of A? or B?
Only in a relative sense.
>There could be a number of uses for simulations
>with Approval, to compare its strategies, or to
>compare Approval to other methods. I dont know
>how Lomax would generate utilities, but
>typically one randomly positions voters and
>candidates in issue space of 1 or more
>dimensions, usually normally distributed in each
>dimension. Then the merit of a candidate for a
>voter is measured by the distance between
>candidate and voter--either city block or
>Pythagorean distance. I prefer city-block, for
>reasons that Ive described here an on the
>Approval list. Briefly, its because I claim
>that a candidates various issue distances from you are meaningfully additive.
Issue-space is one method for calculating
utilities. Various methods are used in Warren's
simulations, and variations on the utility
distributions are part of the simulator's inputs.
However, I'm taking another approach, looking at
the entire range of election possibilities from
the point of view of a single voter with zero
knowledge of the votes of other voters, so that
the voter rationally may assume that those votes are evenly distributed.
There is another possible assumption which could
be used, which is that the votes of others would
be biased toward the votes of the voter (compared
to random). This would be, in general, more
realistic, but it drastically complicates matters.
Likewise, it could be assumed that candidates
exist on a spectrum, so that, typically, far more
often than not, voter opinion about one pairwise
election will predict voter opinion about others.
For example, if the voter prefers Nader to Bush,
we might consider it quite rare that the voter would prefer Bush to Nader.
But, again, this complicates simulations greatly.
Issue space simulation, though, should generally produce effects like this.
However, in the current argument, we don't need
to go to those lengths. Readers will see when I write up the study.
>Whether a voter will approve a candidate of
>course depends on those distances, and on what
>strategy that voter is using. It may therefore
>depend also on such things as vote totals in the previous election.
Sure.
>Lomax continues:
>However, Approval is, in fact, a Range method.
>
>I reply:
>
>Dueling definitions? Rangers use Range to
>encompass all Cardinal Ratings methods. But,
>especially since the Rangers are pretty much the
>main users of the Range term, it seems useful
>to let CR cover the broad class of
>points-assignment methods, and let Range
>denote the CR methods with more than two rating levels.
It's artificial. By making the definition
complicated, sure, you can do that, but Range and
Approval behave quite similarly; arguments
against one are generally arguments against the
other. The difference is simply the resolution,
it is mostly a difference of degree rather than
of kind, though there are some particular effects
that occur from restricting the ratings to the bare minimum.
>Lomax says:
>
>We can expect that,
>generally, the SU maximizer will also maximize Approval
>
>I reply:
>
>Certainly not. A ridiculous statement.
Generally was an essential part of this.
> Often all the methods used will give the same
> winner. For instance, Nader won all of EMs
> presidential polls, by Approval, 0-100 RV,
> Condorcet, and Bucklin. Probably by almost
> every proposed rank count that we didnt try, too.
Yes.
Approval is a kind of SU measure, reduced to
binary. If we maximize SU, *usually* we will
maximize the number of voters who rated a
candidate above some "Approval cutoff." Not
always, because of the issue of preference strength.
To maintain his position, Ossipoff must maintain
that preference strength is irrelevant, because
Approval provides no means for expressing any variation in preference strength.
>But often different methods will give different
>results. AV and RV look at different standards,
>count different things, and theres no reason to
>expect them to give the same result, though, as
>I said, different methods sometimes do.
*This* is ridiculous. Both methods determine the
position of a candidate on a scale. Range (>1)
provides are more accurate position than Approval, that's all.
Elsewhere, there seems to be an assumption that
midRange is an Approval cutoff; when I stated
that a voter prefers A>B>C, with equal preference
strengths in the A/B and B/C pairwise elections,
Ossipoff claimed that this placed B at the "Approval cutoff."
It's not unreasonable to assume that; however,
that is *not* where I would place an actual
approval cutoff, depending on election
probabilities, I could vote for candidates below
midrange (sincere Range ratings, normalized) and
not vote for candidates above midrange.
In any case, if midrange is the approval cutoff,
voting for a candidate in Approval is an
indication that the rating of the candidate is in
the top half of the range, otherwise it is in the
bottom half of the range. In Range, the range may
be divided into more than two sections, and the
vote indicates which section the candidate is in,
unless the vote is distorted by strategic considerations.
But they are the same method; for Range N, the
range is divided into N+1 sections. And Range 1
is Approval. Approval is fully described by Range
rules, unless special rules are added, such as N is greater than 1.
>Lomax continues:
>
>, though bare
>Approval, being binary in expression, loses data and thus cannot be
>accurate with respect to *relative approval
>
>I reply:
>
>So, Approval loses accuracy in measuring RV
>scores. Amazing. Could that be because AV isnt
>RV, and we arent interested in RV scores? If we
>wanted to accurately measure RV scores, wed join the Rangers.
No. Approval loses accuracy in reporting voter
preferences. I'll agree; Ossipoff is not
interested in accurate reporting of voter preferences. It irritates him.
>Lomax says:
>
>Let's see what Ossipoff does:
>
>> Say, for the moment, we disregard the fact
>> that the SU claims depend on sincere voting,
>> and that sincere voting is nearly always suboptimal in RV.
>
>Ossipoff continually makes this claim. It's false. "Suboptimal" is
>the trick. It is suboptimal, true, from the point of view of the
>individual voter maximizing his or her own personal utility
>
>I reply:
>
>Yes, thats usually what means by suboptimal.
Ossipoff interrupts my sentence midstream, which
is an acknowledgement that *in some situations*
the vote is suboptimal, and I specified something
which he has routinely omitted. In those
situations, the vote can be suboptimal for the
individual voter, but if the vote is sincere, it
is never suboptimal for the overall satisfaction of society.
Because these two optimizations can sometimes
conflict *to a degree*, I made it clear that I
was agreeing with respect to one, not the other.
>Lomax continues:
>
>, *in some
>scenarios.* In others, it is clearly optimal to vote "sincerely."
>
>I reply:
>
>Sure, sometimes your best utility-maximizing
>strategy coincides with a frank expression of how you feel. So what?
So what? It was just stated that voting sincerely
was *never* optimal, and Ossipoff agreed with
that. Is he retracting that agreement? It looks
like he isn't, but is he denying that he ever
agreed? That would be interesting, and also easy to check!
> For instance, in AV or RV, Id bottom-rate
> Hillary, Obama, and Edwards, because they dont
> deserve any better. My sincere opinion expressed on the ballot.
Ossipoff is here confusing sincere opinion with
sincere rating, he is confusing votes with what
candidates "deserve." And his personal politics,
no matter how abominable, is not relevant here;
he has often been known, when in difficulty in
argument, to attempt to divert them into political flame wars.
Contrary to what Ossipoff wrote earlier, I'm not
a newcomer. And even if I were, he's left quite a
record that anyone can read....
>[irrelevant political rant deleted]
>
>
>Lomax continues:
>
>There are a series of problems. First of all, "sincere" vote requires
>some serious work to define. It is far from clear what a "sincere"
>Range vote is.
>
>I reply:
>
>
but thats your problem as a Ranger, not mine.
>But let me tell Lomax what he means by a sincere
>RV vote: Your voted ratings are proportional to
>the candidates value for you (as nearly as you can estimate that value).
No. I've written a great deal on the meaning of
sincere with Range Votes, I won't repeat it here.
There are algorithms for coming up with sincere
ratings, and they don't involve proportions for
*candidates,* they involve comparative
*preference strengths*. This is quite not proportional to value.
Suppose we have an election with economic value.
And I can estimate the financial return to me of
the election of each candidate, making it easy to
compare them and to derive my preferences and
preference strengths. In this case, though, I can
proceed to ratings from values, and I don't use
proportions. There is no multiplication or
division involved, except in the final conversion
to a specific Range scale. What is then being
"proportioned" is the overall scale, so the
numbers in it are proporotional to the orginal normalized utilities.
Now, perhaps this is what Ossipoff meant and he
simply expressed it imprecisely. Let me restate
it. My voted rating *steps* are proportional to
the preference strengths between the candidates
involved. So if my A>B preference is twice as
strong as my B>C preference, then the difference
in rating between A and B will be twice the
difference in rating between B and C.
In the economic model, the values would simply be
associated with the candidate, the range of
values would be converted to the range of the
election (this is normalized to maximize the
effect of my vote), and the necessary multiplier
and offset used to adjust each value to a rating.
And if every voter votes this way, it maximizes
the economic return to the society. Note that if
it is a zero-sum game, there can be no winner, it
must tie. But economic values are usually *not*
zero-sum, zero-sum economic games are artificial and generally oppressive.
>Lomax says:
>
>We can defined a "clearly insincere" vote as being one
>where the range ratings reverse preference.
>
>I reply:
>
>Dont be silly.
My definition is standard. The problem is that
the word "sincere" does not state *how* sincere a
vote is. An Approval vote is a Range vote on the
scale of 0 to 1. By restricting the values to
two, we cleverly avoid any consideration of *how*
sincere it is; indeed, sincerity is totally
unclear with Approval. Once we have more possible
votes, though, the question is then, if a voter,
in translating their internal preferences and
strengths to votes, uses a scale that is larger
than the Range election scale, thus "truncating"
the votes, or some of them, such that more than
one candidate sits at the extremes, is this "insincere?"
I claim that, no, it is not. It is simply not
fully expressive. Is the lack of expression
deceptive in some way? If I rate two candidates
equally, does it mean that I have no preference
between them? Clearly that's not the case;
certainly Approval votes don't mean that!
There is no fixed, "sincere" translation from
internal utilities to Range Votes. We can specify
an algorithm and call that sincere, but then we
are simply defining it specially. Absent an
agreed-upon definition, voting methods debaters
swing arguments on hidden and implied meanings, without ever nailing them down.
How many words have been wasted in arguments
about what "prefer" means? Quite a few, I'll
assert. I've pointed out, to the derision of
some, that, as stated, Approval satisfies the
Majority Criterion; and in the end, there are
some very solid experts that came down with the
position that, yes, there were some problems with
the definitions. And, with one reasonable
definition, requiring that "prefer" mean to "act
to prefer," Approval satisfies the Majority Criterion.
And then various experts scrambled to come up
with better definitions; and, often, these
definitions still did not address the problem.
> The opposite of a sincere RV vote is a
> strategic vote that differs from a sincere vote
> in order to maximize expectation, or accomplish some other strategic goal.
Attempting to define sincere by its opposite is
quite problematic. And, here, the definition is circular.
True, I attempted to approach the definition of
sincere by defining a "clearly insincere" behavior: reversing preference.
Consider this. There are four candidates: Gore,
Nader, and the Antichrist. No similarity to actual elections is implied!
My internal utilities are 100, 80, and 0, let's
say. However, I don't think there is any
reasonable possibility that the Antichrist is
going to win the election. So I truncate. Is my vote of 100,0 insincere?
Now, reduce the candidate set to just Gore and
Nader. I vote 100 and 0, just to irritate Ossipoff, but also sincerely. :-)
Wait a minute, I think. I really should write in
my true favorite. So I do, and rate her at 100.
Does this make my first vote for Gore insincere?
I don't think so. I think that truncation is not
insincere, in the ordinary meaning, and it is
quite dangerous, in my opinion, to use ordinary
words, especially loaded ones like "sincere" in
discussing election methods in public forums.
Further, I may simple vote Approval style because
it is, for me, in that election, easier. It's
easier to put the candidates in two classes
instead of rating them in more detail, perhaps.
Is this insincere? No. But it is not "fully sincere, complete, and accurate."
>Lomax continues:
>
>What Ossipoff is talking about is voting "Approval style," in Range.
>But this isn't "insincere,"
>
>I reply:
>
>Lomaxs dueling definitions game again.
Trying to be clear with Ossipoff around is
definitely like dueling. He's opposed to it.
Anyway, it's far too easy to go on and on with
Ossipoff, and a huge waste of time. He's
complained frequently about the length of my
posts, though he's no slouch at post length.
However, in addition, he fills up mailing lists
with many posts as well. If someone doesn't care
to read what I write, they can easily skip it, I
don't mind. Many posts, on the other hand, can be
a little more irritating. Still, I am no fan of
censorship; where writers are to be censured or
censored, I'd prefer, greatly, to leave it to democratic process.
> We all know that when we speak of a sincere RV
> vote, we mean it as I defined it above. An RV
> vote that is other than sincere means a
> strategic vote that differs from a sincere
> vote. As I said, sometimes frank expression and
> strategic optimality coincide, in which case
> none of us would call the ballot insincere.
>Lomax continues:
>
>[With preferences A>B>C]
>
>Where do I rate B? Well, if the B utility is midway between A and C,
>we can define a "sincere" rating of B as 50%.
>
>I reply;
>
>Thats consistent with everyones definition of a sincere RV rating.
>
>Lomax continues:
>
>
>But what if the *real* pairwise election is between A and B? And C is
>actually irrelevant, C has no chance of being elected. Well, then I'd
>rate B min also.
>
>
>And in the reverse case, i.e., the real election is
>between B and C, then I'd rate B max.
>
>
>I reply:
>
>Youd be a strategic voter, voting Approval
>strategy. So why do you want intermediate ratings?
Because I was beginning by describing certain
special cases. Those cases are not the general
case, and many situations call for intermediate
votes to be optimal. Further, there is the matter
of overall social utility. I also happen to
desire *that* as well, and I do not prefer to
give myself a small advantage that costs society, overall, more than I gain.
And I trust that this preference is widely enough
shared that what goes around comes around. In
another election, I'll be the one getting a large gain at small cost.
(Where Range and Approval differ, generally, we
have a small preference of the majority vs. a
large preference of a minority. In my opinion,
the majority should consent to such a result, and
Approval does not sufficiently express that
consent, because of strategic forcing. Consent
should not be coerced, and election context can
coerce it, if precautions are not taken.)
(response to be continued)
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