[EM] SFC and "margins vs. winning votes"

Kevin Venzke stepjak at yahoo.fr
Sat Mar 5 16:54:56 PST 2005


Russ,

I hesitate to respond to this, as I get the impression you just want to
oppose all of Mike Ossipoff's ideas.

 --- Russ Paielli <6049awj02 at sneakemail.com> a écrit : 
> Here´s the actual definition of SFC:
> 
> SFC:
> 
> If no one falsifies a preference, and if a majority prefer the CW to 
> candidate Y, and vote sincerely, then Y shouldn´t win.
> 
> [end of SFC definition]
> 
> Here's my comment:
> 
> Mike considers this criterion critical and uses it as evidence that 
> certain Condorcet variations are less vulnerable to insincere strategy 
> when they base defeat strength on "winning votes" rather than "margins."
 
> If no one falsifies a preference, and if the margin of the victory of 
> the CW over candidate Y is larger than any other margin of victory, then 
> Y shouldn't win.
> 
> [end of margins SFC definition]
> 
> Does it now appear that margins is less vulnerable to strategy than 
> winning votes?

Your SFC is pretty absurd. It says that the loser of the strongest contest
(by margins) can't win if that loss is to the CW.

Mike's SFC says a majority of the voters don't need to do anything fancy
to elect the CW. I can't see what or to whom your criterion makes a
guarantee.

> If you argue for wv, you are claiming that a 51-49 victory is "stronger" 
> than a 49-0 victory. Common sense tells us that's nonsense. Some of us 
> still have common sense.

Forget "stronger"; the question is which one will you ignore if you have to
ignore one of them. You can't toss out 51-49 over 49-0 without making guesses
about the sentiments of the abstaining voters in the latter contest.

> As Blake pointed out, we can think of truncated votes as more or less 
> equivalent to the same votes completed with random rankings. In that 
> case, any margin of victory translates to a majority victory.

So, what do you make of my favorite scenario?:

49 A
24 B
27 C>B

Kevin Venzke



	

	
		
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