[EM] Re: Utilities?
Jobst Heitzig
heitzig-j at web.de
Wed Sep 8 13:45:10 PDT 2004
Dear Steve!
you wrote:
> Well, first a minor point... I believe the word
> "linear" is not used when there are equivalences.
> A linear ordering means the same as a "strict"
> ordering. When there are equivalences, the term
> in the literature is usually "weak" ordering.
> (I sometimes call a weak ordering a nonstrict
> ordering, or just an ordering.)
You are right here of course!
However, order theorists like me frequently use "order" or "ordering" as
a synonym of *partial* order instead of weak ordering. Also, the term
"weak ordering" is often avoided by order theorists since it
misleadingly suggests that it is something weaker than a (partial)
order, which it is not. Instead, we most often call that class of
relations "total quasi-orders", "total" being the order-theoretic name
of what others call "completeness" (while "completeness" refers to the
existence of suprema and infima in ordern theory). So much about
terminology -- it always gets confusing when people with different
background talk, but this should be no real problem :-)
>
>
> It may be misleading to say that because voters
> tend to have transitive preferences that it's
> reasonable to assume when A?C is changed to A=C
> that it will also lead to A>D and C>B. So,
> to avoid confusing the issues when studying
> the difference between undecidedeness and
> equivalence on voter behavior, I think we
> should prefer an example such as this:
>
>
> undecidedness equivalence
> A C A=C
> |\ /| |
> | \/ | |
> | /\ | |
> |/ \| |
> B D B=D
>
>
> Would a voter behave differently given the
> undecidedness preferences on the left instead
> of the equivalence preferences on the right?
> How would the undecided voter behave if allowed
> to express equivalence but not undecidedness
> when voting? Is the distinction significant
> enough to make it worth complicating the voting
> method? I'm sorry I didn't make my questions
> clear earlier and I hope they are clearer now.
>
You made it perfectly clear, I think. As for your example, I indeed
think that it will probably make no significant difference for most voters.
What I suggested however in my old paper was that the expression of
"undecidedness" between A and B (A?B) may be interpreted as the wish to
*delegate* the decision about A,B to the other voters in order to
improve the result in view of incomplete information or lack of
expertise, while expression of "equivalence" of A and B (A=B) may be
interpreted as the statement that they should have the same probability
to be chosen at the end, so that a coin would decide between A and B if
they were the only feasible alternatives.
Hence, the natural decision rule for the case of just two alternatives
A,B under this interpretation would...
choose A if #(A>B) > #(B>A),#(A=B),
choose B if #(B>A) > #(A>B),#(A=B),
throw a coin if either #(A=B) >= #(A>B),#(B>A) or #(A>B)=#(B>A).
When I was thinking about this differnce, however, I mostly had
competitions with a small jury in mind such as dancing or design
competitions.
Instead, the main reason I insist on not misinterpreting undecidedness
as equivalence is the fact that in contrast to me many people on this
list do require preferences to be *transitive*. And with this additional
provision it is well important to distinguish the two notions, as my
original example shows: The "correct" preference relation A>B,C>D *is*
transitive (and will thus be deemed "rational" by most people here). But
the "incorrect" one with 4 equivalences instead of 4 undecidednesses is
A>B,C>D,A=C=B=D=A which is *not* transitive since A >= B >= C without A
>= C (it is only *quasi*-transitive)!
So, the problem is, when we allow equivalence and undecidedness but
require transitivity, our class of possible preference relations is that
of all *partial* orders, while if we only allow equivalence it is the
smaller class of all *weak* orderings.
Yours, Jobst
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