[EM] Re: Definition of fully voting one candidate over another

[MIKE OSSIPOFF]

Kevin--

You wrote:

Of course I only used the word "merely" in my question to distinguish from
"fully voting"

I reply:

Ok then, sorry if I replied with an inappropriately defensive tone, because 
it really seemed to me at the time that you were playing games with me by 
implying that I used a special term that had "merely" as part of the term's 
wording. I undestand now that you weren't.

Fully voting X over Y is much more than voting X over Y, as the CR 0-100 
example shows.

I use the word "fully" because voters voting that way can completely cancel 
out the effect of equally many voters in a 2-candidate comparison, no matter 
how those others vote. So they're voting as strongly as possible in that 
2-candidate comparison.

I usually have good manners, except when I (sometimes mistakenly) perceive 
that someone is attacking just be be attacking, or is intentionally 
misinterpreting something. But I am really sorry when I reply to an attack 
that wasn't made, as was the case this time.

By the way, I don't claim that these definitions of voting one candidate 
over another can't be improved on in any way. For instance, if  someone 
defined a method so that a quorum is part of the method, that could cause 
trouble for these definitions. Maybe it should be stipulated that, for the 
purpose of these definitions, a quorum rule isn't part of a method.

If there's anything wrong with any definition(s) that I use, of course I'm 
interested in hearing about that. For instance, if a definition has 
unintended consequences, or more than one possible meaning, etc.

Those definitions are the best that I have so far, but maybe someone could 
suggest a different approach, or a different kind of wording.

Again,  I was replying as if to a wise-guy or to someone insincerely, 
unconstructively setting out to find fault.  I was mistaken this time, and 
I'm really sorry about my lapse in manners.

Mike Ossipoff

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