[EM] Markus: Demonstration that Benham & Woodall meet CD

Juho Laatu juho4880 at yahoo.co.uk
Thu Jan 9 13:16:02 PST 2014

On 9.1.2014, at 22.29, Michael Ossipoff <email9648742 at gmail.com> wrote:

> But I'll just add that when you feel A>B, and vote A=B, you aren't really falsifying a preference.

It seems that you are taking about not allowing the voter to "indicate a false (strict) preference" but allowing the voter to "indicate a false indifference".

You may need also a definition that says that unranked candidates (=not in the ballot) are considered to be ranked below the last ranked candidate. Different rules or wordings may apply to methods where this is not the case.

> Is it ok to rank A last (on the ballot) even if one could leave A unranked (=not mentioned in the ballot)?
> Certainly, by any of my definitions of voting X over Y, and by anyone's intuitive judgement.

Many methods consider unranked candidates to be effectively ranked below all the ranked candidates. Therefore ranking A last on the ballot (when there are also unranked candidates) seems to me to violate your condition "B voters refuse to vote A over anyone".


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