[EM] election-methods Digest, Vol 19, Issue 4

[Dharmadeva]

If it is equivalent to a no vote, then the no is the majority.

If it is disallowed, then the majority is still not there.

What is the law on this in relation to associations, eg incorporated
associations, as that law will have to prevail.

Is there any common law principle or is there a more usual statutory
principle.

Remember this is concerned with the case where all are present and still
there are only 20 yes votes out of 60, with 30 abstentions.

:-----Original Message-----
:From: Scott Ritchie [mailto:scott at open-vote.org] 
:Sent: Sunday, 15 January 2006 1:41 PM
:To: prout at ways-ahead.net
:Cc: election-methods at electorama.com
:Subject: Re: [EM] election-methods Digest, Vol 19, Issue 4
:
:On Sun, 2006-01-15 at 13:28 +1100, PROUT - Progressive Utilisation
:wrote:
:> The context is simply that there are say 60 people in a room - all 
:> present - and all entitled to vote. All are members of an 
:organisation or association.
:> 
:> 30 abstain
:> 20 vote yes
:> 10 vote no
:> 
:> I believe as they are all entitled to vote and the majority do not 
:> have the the yes votes, it means the motion/matter is not carried.
:
:Why not disallow abstentions then, since an abstention becomes 
:absolutely equivalent to a no vote?
:
:-Scott Ritchie
: