[EM] compulsory voting
Abd ulRahman Lomax
abd at lomaxdesign.com
Thu Oct 20 19:49:47 PDT 2005
At 03:58 AM 10/18/2005, Chris Benham wrote:
>I'm not saying that compulsory voting is for its own sake in
>principle desirable, just that at worse it can be counted
>as a minuscule evil that in practice is a simple way to counteract
>much greater evils.
I'm saying that compulsory voting is coercive (this shouldn't be
controversial!) and that coercion on the part of the state should be
justified by social necessity. Both the benefit and harm of
compulsory voting are unclear. The harm is not small however; the
social cost of compyulsory probably exceeds what is currently spent
on election campaigns. And that cost is born by the voters, it is a
hidden tax. Miniscule? Compared to what? The value of the coerced
labor could easily exceed all other expenditures involved in the election....
It's the wrong response to low voter turnout. I actually think this
should be obvious.
I may have given an example in the past, but I'll repeat it here:
there seems to be a common opinion that slower driving is safer
driving, and it is often easy to convince authorities to lower posted
speed limits in the name of safety. (That this increases revenue to
local authorities from traffic fines is not the issue, it is claimed.
My contacts in the police tell me otherwise.) The problem is that
it's well known that posted speed limits have almost no effect on the
actual speed at which people travel. This is fairly easy to
understand: when people drive a route day after day, they become
unconscious of the signs that they see every day; most people will
drive, on "autopilot," at a speed where they feel comfortable. Some
people drive faster than that, or have, from long habit of fast
driving, conditioned themselves to be comfortable with high speeds;
these are the true speeders.
So: the coercive response to perceptions of road safety: set lower
speed limits and fine speeders. But this is ineffective, it does not
make the road safer. A far better response would be to address truly
unsafe road conditions; if road conditions are such that a normal
driver will drive too fast, fix the conditions or add speed bumps or
blinking lights or special warning signs. Usually those who drive
roads frequently know how fast is safe: this is why U.S. Highway
codes require that speed limits be set by measuring the speeds, under
unbiased conditions -- no police car parked along the side of the
road -- at which people actually travel; speed limits are supposed to
be set no lower than the 85th percentile speed.
So if people don't vote, find out why! And fix it. Forcing them to
vote won't address the real issue: the alienation of people from
their government, the cynicism and despair about voting actually
making a difference.
And now we come to the crux:
>Democracy is a form of "rule".
That's it in a nutshell. Democracy, per se, is not a form of rule,
for coercion is not intrinsic to democracy; rather, coercion may be
necessary under conditions where full democracy fails.
> It can only become compromised by too much "coercion" if people
> are denied
>the right to put their case
> and to politically organise (freedom to express and have heard
> their political views, freedom
>to associate in political parties, freedom to peacefully demonstrate
>etc.) or are denied the right to a basic education
>or their right to vote is compromised.
I've worked in the U.S. prison system as a chaplain. I can tell you,
plenty of people here, and, I'm sure, elsewhere, are "denied the
right to put their case and to politically organize." Felons are not
permitted to vote, and in some jurisdictions, even after they are
released, the denial of that right continues for life. Florida is a
notorious example, where hyperactive search for felons on the voter
roles resulted, probably, in the denial of the right to vote for many
who were not felons, resulting in a narrow victory for Bush in
Florida and thus in the U.S. electoral college (due to the Florida
rule that all state electors go to the plurality winner). However,
the denial of the right to vote for felons is utterly unjustified,
especially if those felons are under no disadvantage due to
incarceration, have paid their debt as society determined, and,
indeed pay taxes (which they did even while they were incarcerated,
if they had income). "No taxation without representation" is a
popular slogan, not a law; quite simply, most people, for one reason
or another, are not represented. If they own one $1 share of stock in
a corporation, they *are* represented at the annual meeting of the
corporation if they desire it. But they can pay a million dollars a
year in taxes, and they do not necessarily have representation before
the legislatures.
We have, in the U.S., and to varying degrees in other "democracies"
around the world, a system which is far from fully democratic; what
we really have is an oligarchy which uses certain nominally
democratic forms. The oligarchy is much more subtle than we see in
pure dictatorships or blatant fascism, but that the people, here,
have theoretical access to the levers of power does not mean that
they have *practical* access.
It does not have to be this way.
I'll say it again: the U.S. does have democratic institutions, in
theory. It would have them in practice if there were parity in how
the various elements of society were organized. The problem is not
actually the governmental forms: the election methods, the rules for
the formation of legislatures, etc. All these are sufficiently
democratic that if the people could act coherently and cooperatively,
the society could be fully democratic *without* any need to change
election methods or rules.
But the people do not know how to organize; the methods of
organization which elements of the people who realize the
organizational problem attempt to use to accomplish a solution have,
thus far, been the same traditional methods of organization which
have produced the current situation; all that happens is that the
names of the players change. There are exceptions: many alternative
organizations in the U.S. use consensus process, which could be said
to be direct democracy on steroids: no compulsion at all, any member
may block a group action.
However, this must be considered experimental; it works only under
certain conditions: small group size, members with ample leisure time
to devote to the necessary and often tedious meetings, and a general
agreement as to purpose among the members, from the start. But the
existence and relative success of such organizations must be seen as
a sign that democracy is possible, if difficult, without coercion, or
certainly with much less coercion than we are accustomed to
tolerating in organizations.
My goal is not to eliminate all coercion; rather my goal is to
eliminate unnecessary and dysfunctional coercion. The first and most
obvious aspect which should be addressed is the lack of
representation. Corporations solved the problem centuries ago;
indeed, the solution exists at common law and it is only the fact
that the history of elections made it illegal, in most places, to
vote by proxy in political elections (and where it is permitted, it
is permitted only in a very limited way) that has resulted in the
failure of legislative bodies to truly represent everyone.
>Democracy is all about rule of the majority, usually via (elected)
>representatives. That majority must be informed.
By whom?
Elected representatives are not personal representatives. If there is
an election, there are losers. Further, there is a term, such that a
voter cannot withdraw his or her consent to be represented by a
winner, for the term. The fact is that there is no reason not to
allow direct democracy, where practical. And it could be practical
under some circumstances; indeed, most corporations have not found it
necessary to deny ordinary shareholders the right to vote at the
annual meeting. Corporations do not allow absentee ballot, for very
good reasons. The annual meeting is a deliberative body, and absentee
voting is a bad idea, for those who vote should have had the
opportunity to witness and, perhaps, participate in the
deliberations. This condition is satisfied by proxy voting.
There are election systems which do approximate proxy democracy;
however, proxy democracy still has features which are absent from any
electoral system, and delegable proxy takes it to another level.
The features are:
(1) Personal choice as to representative. With delegable proxy,
representation may be passed on. In proxy democracy, representatives
are chosen, not elected.
(2) The right to personally vote, when the citizen/member/shareholder
is able to do so, i.e., to attend the assembly and vote; or, perhaps,
to follow and possibly participate in public deliberations, and to
vote directly on any matter before the assembly, through remote means.
(3) Personally identified representation, with two-way communication
possible with the chosen representative. Thus the citizen is
*connected* with the assembly, and if the assembly is governmental,
with the government.
Delegable proxy allows a mutually acceptable level of communication
to exist between a direct proxy and the citizen/member. If the proxy
is not available, the citizen can choose another proxy who is. If the
proxy considers the citizen too demanding, the proxy can refuse to
represent the citizen.
Now, this could be considered, at this point, a utopian scheme.
Delegable proxy, in particular, has seen very little implementation.
However, the point here is that full democracy is theoretically possible.
But there is a crucial point, I will repeat:
>Democracy is all about rule of the majority
No, not exactly. Democracy is about the *consent* of the people to
government. If the people completely consent to the government, it is
fully democratic. If they do not, to the extent that they do not, it
is not fully democratic. "Majority" is an important turning point,
but it does not indicate substantial consent.
For one thing, what passes for "majority" is often actually
plurality, and sometimes not even that, where arcane rules apply.
There is a subtle point, often overlooked. The people working with
consensus democracy have realized the organizational power of full
consensus. When consensus systems work, organizational unity is enhanced.
It is my contention that modern societies have become successful
largely due to the degree to which they practice democracy, that is,
to the degree to which the governed consent to the government. Where
such consent is widespread, the social organization is *effective*
and relatively *efficient.* Where it is not, the society is bogged
down; decisions are made by a few, and that few cannot match in
intelligence and wisdom the collective intelligence of the whole
society. And active collective intelligence requires freedom, it
cannot be coerced; coercion confuses it.
But consensus systems don't always work. Where differences are too
deep or the controversies too convoluted, the time it can take to
find consensus solutions can expand beyond what the members can bear;
when this happens, there are several breakdown modes, but a common
one is that the status quo continues. Which can be, in this case,
minority rule.
Majority rule *is* an important democratic principle, but that does
not necessarily make majority rule wise. Rather, the majority has the
*right* of decision. Who should decide when it is necessary to make a
decision against the will of a minority? The majority. Any other
answer results in minority rule. For example, it is not uncommon in
consensus organizations for a special rule to exist which allows
making a decision without full consensus. One co-housing community we
almost bought into allows 80% to make a decision, after providing
ample opportunity to find consensus. But that still allows minority
rule, it merely increases the necessary size of the minority to
continue to block decisions, from one single member to 20%+ of members.
I've become quite unpopular in consensus circles. by advocating the
right of the majority to make an informed decision to relax consensus
rules. I'm arguing in the other direction here: the majority does
have the right to make decisions, without any restriction other than
due-process protections, but it will ordinarily restrain itself, if it is wise.
The human body solved this organizational problem long ago. We make
decisions by "majority rule," internally; essentially, we integrate
nerve message "votes." However, when we are healthy, we are not
content with a mere majority vote, we seek some degree of internal
unity, we will not leap into action merely because at one moment in
time, a majority of impulses are in one direction. People who do are
mentally ill. But we do have emergency responses available; when
necessity is sensed, we will indeed act based on an immediate majority.
Who decides when there is an emergency, which justifies overriding a
minority, which justifies coercion? The majority decides. But that
decision, in a democracy, should be conscious and explicit, and it
should be understood that every time such a decision is made, society
may be weakened. Just as with any strong medicine, there should be an
indication justifying it.
>In reference to high voter turnout, Abd wrote:
>>
>>
>>
>>
>>If it is coerced, it means nothing.
>One thing I find annoying about Abd's argument is that it makes no
>distinction between degrees of "coercion".
That's nonsense. Specifically, degree of democracy was associated
with degree of coercion. Very little coercion, very little deviation
from democracy. How could this be "no distinction?"
> Of course
>a high turnout is somewhat "devalued" by mild coercion,
No kidding!
> but definitely not to the point that "it means nothing".
The *turnout* means nothing. The election might still mean something.
>In Australia voting is widely seen as something like wearing
>seatbelts in cars and paying taxes. Everyone agrees that it would
>be better if everyone did those things, while at the same time
>usually recognizing that they themselves might not always bother
>if the only incentives are the the greater good and the
>perhaps-remote chance of an accident.
I've mentioned occasionally that I was a chaplain at San Quentin
State Prison in California. "Criminals" will typically agree that
there should be laws against the things they have done. (Drug
traffickers may be an exception, that's a whole different issue.)
They do think, however, sometimes, that their particular
circumstances made it allowable for them to break the law. Or they
don't: they simply will admit that they made a mistake.
I'm a little skeptical that "everyone" in Australia sees voting as
claimed. For one thing, we have seen recently from Mr. Benham
material vigorously defending compulsory voting from an Australian
politician, who was claiming that those who wanted to eliminate the
compulsion were essentially evil oligarchs who wanted to deprive the
poor of representation. My impression was that of a politician given
to hyperbole in pursuit of her own goals. Quite obviously, she was
not arguing against thin air. There are Australians who want to
eliminate the compulsion.
Personally, I do *not* agree that everyone should vote. In fact, I
think most people are unqualified. In some cases, that includes me,
I'm not an elitist; in fact, my position is that the only one who can
decide if a voter is qualified or not is the voter himself or
herself. This kind of thinking is behind the delegable proxy
proposals I've been working with. Instead of voting on matters I
don't understand (perhaps because of a lack of time to do the
necessary research, perhaps because of other factors), I would prefer
to lodge my voting power with someone I trust. This reduces my
decision to one of whom to trust; and it's my opinion that people,
qualified or not, have the *right* to make that decision.
And, indeed they do, at common law. Anyone who is legally competent
can assign a power of attorney to anyone they choose to exercise
almost all legal rights that could be exercised by the person himself
or herself....
>Voting in Australia is seen as a civic duty, and the level
>of "coercion" is mainly about the state helping the citizens to discipline
>themselves.
Fascists everywhere have made this claim.
> An Australian comic (IMO not great) recently joked that voting
> should continue to be "compulsory" but that paying
>the fine for not voting should be optional (for people with a bad conscience).
Sometimes jokes conceal great truths.
I have utterly no regret for abstaining from voting on issues where I
do not have sufficient grounds to form an opinion. And I have little
regret and no guilt for missing the opportunity to vote when it was
seriously inconvenient. I've never seen an election turn on my absence....
>>How about this modest proposal? The government pays every voter an
>>amount to compensate for their time, at the rate shown by their tax
>>returns, or at a minimum rate for those not obligated to file returns.
>That completely sucks. People who pay higher taxes shouldn't be paid
>more to vote.
It's just a small rebate from what they pay. *Why not*? Is everyone's
time equally valuable? Note that a bias was introduced into the
proposal in favor of paying the poor *more* than their time is
"worth" as measured by taxes; there would be a minimum rate, probably
something like minimum wage.
The government pays consultants, often huge amounts. Isn't voting a
consultation with the people? Why shouldn't those who vote be paid
for their time?
On the one hand, it is being claimed that voting is a civic duty,
which presumes that it is of value to the state. Does that value
exceed the value of the time of the voters? If not, they it is poor
policy to force voters to vote, the social cost exceeds the social
benefit. If it does exceed that value, then society is "making a
profit" on the transaction. Paying the voters a minimal amount would
not change that, it would merely reduce the profit.
I used the words "modest proposal" to indicate that the proposal was
satyric. Paying voters the cost of their time would be
*astronomical.* Well, not astronomical, just very, very expensive,
more than I think any government is going to be willing to pay.
Note that the objection was not to the concept of paying the voters,
but of paying some of them more than others. That wasn't at all an
essential part of the proposal. If you really want the poor to turn
out to vote, pay them to vote, and, of course, you would have to pay
everyone the same. Does Mr. Benham like the idea better now?
The point of this thought was to show how valuable that time is. In
the U.S., the time it takes to vote varies greatly, but, particularly
in poor neighborhoods in big cities, it can take in excess of an
hour. Even in a small town like mine, it takes perhaps twenty
minutes. Okay, average it out, a half hour. At minimum wage, say $4
per voter. Compulsory voting in the US might yield, what, 200 million
votes? $800 million. That's what a U.S. election costs, valuing
everyone's labor at minimum wage, which is undervaluing it substantially.
>>It would be eminently fair. If voters are performing a public service
>>by voting (the compulsory voting laws must assume that they are),
>>then it would certainly be reasonable to compensate them.
>Hello! Voters *are* the public.
So? Look, it appears that citizens are fined in Australia for failing
to vote. Where does that money go?
Presumably it goes into the public treasury. Yet, I'm pretty sure,
the law is enforced unevenly. Why not simply pay voters to vote; yes,
of course, it comes from the taxes they pay. But it would make it
unnecessary to fine them. They don't vote, they don't get the tax
rebate, which is what it would amount to. The more I think about it,
the more I like it....
Really. Everyone is so concerned about helping the poor and
disadvantaged to vote, but the biggest obstacle for such people is
precisely that they are poor and disadvantaged. To them $5 would be a
significant benefit. To someone wealthy, it would mean nothing.
>In Australia, elections are always on a Saturday and the polls are
>open from 8am to 6pm. There are lots of polling stations.
And if you are an observant Jew? And it is in the summer and the sun
has not set by 6 pm? For some people, Saturday is the worst day to
have to vote!
>People who don't expect that they will have time on the day can
>apply for a postal vote and mail it before the day. People who
>give a good reason why they couldn't vote are exempt from paying the fine.
The whole thing, however, is made more reasonable by the allowance
for postal voting. If you are poor, do you have to pay for the stamp?
>Maybe in the US more people work on a Saturdays than they do in
>Australia. I've seen it suggested that polling day in the US be
>made a public holiday. I think that that is a good idea, better than
>paying people to vote.
I think it would be even better to simply allow people to transfer
their voting power to others. If they have time, they vote
themselves. If they don't, then their act of choosing who to vote for
them is a profound political act.
>>Having to stand in line to vote?
>>That's crazy. But it is the norm.
>Why is it "crazy"? How else do you propose to ensure that votes are
>secret and so cannot be sold or perhaps "coerced" by say
>a domineering partner?
But, it has been pointed out, mail voting is allowed. So that
"domineering partner" can simply demand that you vote by mail and, of
course [s]he will want to see the paper before it is mailed. There is
an easy way around that one, but I'd bet it isn't legal in Australia.
(Allow a person to vote more than once. The final vote is the
controlling one. Note that absentee ballots are under seal, the outer
envelope gives the name of the voter, the inner one contains the
ballot which, of course, has no name. Procedurally, it would be
simple to discard earlier ballots. And there could be other means for
preventing coercion from being effective.)
Bottom line, though, the issue is not coercion, but coercion which is
sufficiently widespread to swing an election. That's pretty difficult
to pull off. I've never heard of it in the U.S. I think it is a
bugaboo, a pink elephant which is kept away from Australia by
compulsory voting and standing in long lines.
>>To my mind, democracy is government by *consent* of the people. To
>>the extent that the people consent, it is democratic. Coercing people
>>into voting is, quite simply, undemocratic. Even if the majority
>>approve of the practice.
>Why can't people consent to being "coerced"?
Consent is an ongoing thing. It's true that one may consent at one
time to being coerced, but one is then under coercion, and it cannot
be said that this condition continues by default. The whole point of
consent is frustrated if we consider "consensual coercion" to be
consent. Shame on you, Chris!
> Definitions of "consent" vary from an explicit (perhaps signed)
> statement that
>"I consent to x" (which maybe can be revoked at any time and/or has
>to be periodically renewed) to consent that is simply implied
>by continuing to obey the laws and not actively revolting/resisting,
>or something vague between these two extremes.
Consent is a condition which exists at moment to moment. Or not. It
is true that we are effectively bound by past consent, but this is a
practical limitation. I may have consented to some condition years
ago, when I did not know what it really would mean. Does that mean
that I am *now* consenting to that condition?
Democracy has power to the extent that it enjoys the *continued*
consent of the people.
The "consent" that is merely the weakness of the powerless is not
consent, and this imaginary "consent" is nothing other than weakness,
it is not what makes democracy strong.
>So it can be said that people sometimes "consent" to not having
>elections and instead submit to the rule of a benign monarch, which
>isn't democracy. Abd seems to be using a definition of "consent"
>that isn't compatible with "government".
No. I said that a government is democratic to the degree to which it
enjoys the consent of the people. I could expand this in various
ways, by adding, for example, "continued" to consent, which makes it
more specific and clear that past consent does not make a *present*
government democratic.
Adolf Hitler was elected, you know. So was the Hutu government of Ruanda.
>>What is the harm of allowing people not to vote? What if a person
>>considers himself unqualified to judge the candidates? "He can simply
>>not mark the ballot," it will be said. But then you have coerced this
>>person to coming to a room to exercise an act of futility.
>Big deal. That is like people having to wait at a red light when
>there is no opposing traffic. In Australia the person could have
>himself certified as being mentally defective and would then be
>exempt from penalty.
That changes everything. Is a mentally defective person allowed to vote?
If so, why?
And what if the mentally defective person does not realize that he is
mentally defective?
>Anthony Duff wrote:
>>
>>
>>I'd worry about the routine use of absentee ballots, because it then
>>becomes very easy for people to buy or coerce the voting of others.
>Exactly.
But this argument applies to *any* use of absentee ballots. If it is
allowed as an exception, then those who wish to coerce may coerce
their victim into claiming the exception.
The fact is that electoral coercion is much more difficult and
hazardous on a broad scale (as distinct from a petty scale, where
one's spouse demands political obedience) than is simple electoral
fraud. Fraud is fairly common, as well as other technical
manipulations of the system.
One that came to my attention recently was regarding the famous
Florida 2000 debacle in the U.S. As I'm sure you know, overvoting is
a cause for considering a ballot spoiled. However, Florida law
provides that if a voter's intention is clear from the ballot, that
intention is to be honored. It is just that an intention to vote for
more than one in a single-winner election is not allowed.
There were ballots, as you may have heard, where it was less than
crystal clear who the voter was voting for by punching a certain
position. So there were Gore voters who punched out the Gore position
and, then, apparently concerned by the ambiguity of this butterfly
ballot, wrote in the name "Gore." Certain local officials then
disqualified these as overvotes....
That's election fraud, really. But I've never heard of any penalties
being applied for that kind of abuse. The officials can simply claim
that they made a mistake. In this case, it was all moot, because,
contrary to all precedent, the U.S. Supreme Court intervened to
frustrate the state election process....
It's remarkable, I think, all the concern about voter coercion. The
real core of democracy in action is deliberative process, which is
almost never anonymous....
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